Wednesday, January 11, 2017

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test


IELTS SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 42 & BAND 8.0 SAMPLE ANSWERS

Posted: 11 Jan 2017 03:19 AM PST

Check out IELTS Speaking Recent Actual Test in December 2016 & Sample Answers to be well prepared for both IELTS Academic & General Training Test.

IELTS Speaking Part 1 Topics & Questions 

  1. How much money is enough?

Well, it's hard to answer this question as there is no exact measurement to say whether money is enough or not. It's up to (1) perspective and goal of different people.  Some people want to earn more money so they can save up but some just need a certain amount of money to (2)sustain their lives.

  1. Why do people care too much about money?

I think the reason is simply because money equals power. The more money you have ,the more things you can do ,the more influence you have over people. No one refuses power so that's why they give priority to money

  1. Is money important to you?

Absolutely. I can buy things with money and give presents for my family by my own money. It makes my life more meaningful . It's like a  motivation to (1) push me forward and work harder to enhance my life. For me, money is just never enough and if I'm satisfied with what I earn, I'll (2) fall behind with fellows

  1. What do people in your country save money for?

I suppose it's up to different purposes. While the young save money for travelling or paying tuition fees, the elderly tend to keep money for health service and their kids. However, young people have more (1) desire than (2) the seniors so they often spend more than their (3)savings.

 

IELTS Speaking Part 2

Describe a method to save money.

You should say:

What the method is

When you started to use it

How you knew it

and explain why it is helpful

 

ANSWER

Well, i'm not good at saving money and I tend to buy things without considering carefully. It's hard to save if you don't know exactly what you are saving for so  what I do is to (1) set savings goals to motivate myself in every (2) financial decision that I make. Going to japan has always been my biggest dream but I've postponed so many times due to lack of money. I tried to keep money myself but I still (3) overspent and was out of money at the end of months. I asked my mom to keep money for me as she is better at controlling expense. She is like my accountant and  helps me to(4)  balance the expense. She also gives me advice whenever I go shopping to make sure it doesn't (5)set me back .  We have an agreement that whenever I (6)  take away a sum of money, I have to save double that amount. This (7) works wonders with me as my saving goes up every month . Now I  always ask myself whether it's necessary to buy things or I can (8) save for a rainy day. After a while, I realize I've(9)  set aside more money everyday . I buy things within my budget and don't waste  money for unnecessary things. This method of saving money makes me feel good about myself and I feel (10) financially secure

 

IELTS SPEAKING PART 3

PEOPLE VS MONEY

  1. What do you think about money?

Money can do many things, both good and bad. It allows us to have freedom and a wide variety of choices. Money gives us confidence and desire to work harder so we can have better life.  You can decide where and how you want to live when you have a good income. When you do not have much money, your choice will be limited. However, (1) everything comes with a price. Having much money doesn't mean people wont (2) run into problems. Most people fail to (3) strike a balance between earning and enjoying money so they work (4) day and night. They believe they'll be happier if they have lots of money. However, for most people, such time never comes and they die unhappy and dissatisfied

2.Could human beings live without money?

It's true that money isn't the most important thing in this world but it's (1) irreplaceable in our lives. If the world were a completely free place with no expenses and people could own anything they want without money, they would no longer go to work. There would be nothing as (2)  motivation and people would work unproductively .Money stimulates people to (3) overcome obstacles so they can enjoy their achievements to the fullest. Besides, people who have money (4) have their own voice in society and it's a strong encouragement for anyone

  1. In your opinion, why do many people derive pleasure from spending money?

Spending money is definitely the most satisfying feeling ever. People can buy things they've long waited for to (1)please themshelves. Buying something new will (2)make their day and (3)stimulates them to work harder. The money spent isn’t necessarily on oneself but also loved ones. It makes us feel good so we will spend more money the next time.

  1. Who do you think save more money,men or women?

Well, it's hard to say. Men's biggest risk is their (1) egos. They need to (2)brag about their (3) possessions and how much money they've earned , so they end up spending more money. Women tend to save money and spend it when they really need it. However, there are still (4)exceptions when women manage money worse than men. That's why there is no strong proof to show men or women save more money

5. Which do you think is better for the economy of a country or area, people saving money or people spending money?

It's such a tricky question. I guess for any economy, saving (1) is entwined with spending. When people buy things, they will contribute a (2)sum of money to the stores so they can pay salaries . The government also benefit from that as it'll gain tax. If people save money, only the banks have advantage so they can invest or (3) set up new businesses. An ideal economy is when saving and spending balanced . It's a rule for any economy in the world

  1. Do you think the government should let people know how it spends money?

Well, actually, I don't really care about this issue. I think the government has its own reason to not (1) publicize everything. It can be (2) state secrets so the authority wants to (3) keep it private. However, If the government could (4) go public with the amount of  money it spends, it would (5) gain trust from the public and assure them that their money is invested properly

 

YOUNG PEOPLE VS MONEY

  1. How can (or, how do) young people learn to manage their financial affairs?

From my point of view, young people should learn from their parents who have lots of experience with spending money. They will give the youngsters sound advice to  (1) keep an eye on personal expenses . The young should plan short terms and long term (2) financial goals and review them (3) from time to time to manage personal finance well. They need to make sure their budgets cover their savings as well in case of any (4)  unforeseen emergency

  1. Do you think it’s easy for (young) people to save money?

I think it's all about motivation. When people have specific goals, they'll find saving money easier. For instance, lots of youngsters are (1)working their way through university by doing some part-time jobs. They don't feel like depending on their parents and wanting to (2)have less burden on family. They can save a small sum of money every month. Once young people keep that habit, they can have (3) considerable savings for their future

3. Do young people nowadays believe in saving money?

Well, I don't really know. It depends on their (1) outlook, I guess. (2)Saving money up is a good idea in case undesirable problems happen. Developing the discipline to do it over a long period of time is what most people find difficult to do. That's why not many young people (3)keep track with their monthly expense

 

KIDS AND MONEY

  1. Do you think parents should give pocket money to the kids?

I do agree with that. Giving (1) pocket money to children helps them start learning about money management. When children get pocket money, they have to make choices about spending or saving it. If they save up, they have to learn about waiting for things they want . Otherwise , kids who choose to spend are likely to use up all the money. After a few months, they'll know how to (2) spend within their budget. Paying the children to do chores also makes them more hard-working. (3) Money doesn’t grow on trees so giving pocket money will teach the kids to appreciate it

2.Do parents in your country think it’s important for their children to save money?

Yes, they do. They always encourage the kids to (1)  live within their means . They believe if  the children save money , they will be more appreciate  and use it wisely. When they set aside money, they will prepare better for the future. They may think saving isn't necessary now since they are still young and lack of experience. Once they grow up, they 'll understand that it (2) makes good sense.

 

Related Post: 
IELTS Speaking Practice Test 04 – Topic: Money And Society

 

 

IELTS Reading Recent Actual Test 11 in 2016 with Answer Key

Posted: 11 Jan 2017 02:42 AM PST

SECTION 1

Going Bananas

A The world’s favourite fruit could disappear forever in 10 years' time. The banana is among the world's oldest crops. Agricultural scientists believe that the first edible banana was discovered around ten thousand years ago. It has been at an evolutionary standstill ever since it was first propagated in the jungles of South-East Asia at the end of the last ice age. Normally the wild banana, a giant jungle herb called Musa acuminata, contains a mass of hard seeds that make the fruit virtually inedible. But now and then, hunter-gatherers must have discovered rare mutant plants that produced seed-less, edible fruits. Geneticists now know that the vast majority of these soft-fruited plants resulted from genetic accidents that gave their cells three copies of each chromosome instead of the usual two. This imbalance prevents seeds and pollen from developing normally, rendering the mutant plants sterile. And that is why some scientists believe the world’s most popular fruit could be doomed. It lacks the genetic diversity to fight off pests and diseases that are invading the banana plantations of Central America and the small-holdings of Africa and Asia alike.

B In some ways, the banana today resembles the potato before blight brought famine to Ireland a century and a half ago. But “it holds a lesson for other crops, too”, says Emile Frison, top banana at the International Network for the Improvement of Banana and Plantain in Montpellier, France. “The state of the banana,, ,Frison warns, “can teach a broader lesson the increasing standardisation of food crops round the world is threatening their ability to adapt and survive.”

C The first Stone Age plant breeders cultivated these sterile freaks by replanting cuttings from their stems. And the descendants of those original cuttings are the bananas we still eat today. Each is a virtual clone, almost devoid of genetic diversity. And that uniformity makes it ripe for disease like no other crop on Earth. Traditional varieties of sexually reproducing crops have always had a much broader genetic base, and the genes will recombine in new arrangements in each generation. This gives them much greater flexibility in evolving responses to disease – and far more genetic resources to draw on in the face of an attack. But that advantage is fading fast, as growers increasingly plant the same few, high-yielding varieties. Plant breeders work feverishly to maintain resistance in these standardized crops. Should these efforts falter, yields of even the most productive crop could swiftly crash. “When some pest or disease comes along, severe epidemics can occur,” says Geoff Hawtin, director of the Rome-based International Plant Genetic Resources Institute.

D The banana is an excellent case in point. Until the 1950s,one variety, the Gros Michel, dominated the world's commercial banana business. Found by French botanists in Asian the 1820s,the Gros Michel was by all accounts a fine banana, richer and sweeter than today’s standard banana and without the latter/s bitter aftertaste when green. But it was vulnerable to a soil fungus that produced a wilt known as Panama disease. “Once the fungus gets into the soil it remains there for many years. There is nothing farmers can do. Even chemical spraying won't get rid of it,” says Rodomiro Ortiz, director of the Inter-national Institute for Tropical Agriculture in Ibadan, Nigeria. So plantation owners played a running game, abandoning infested fields and moving so “clean" land _ until they ran out of clean land in the 1950s and had to abandon the Gros Michel. Its successor, and still the reigning commercial king, is the Cavendish banana, a 19th-century British discovery from southern China. The Cavendish is resistant to Panama disease and, as a result, it literally saved the international banana industry. During the 1960s,it replaced the Gros Michel on supermarket shelves. If you buy a banana today, it is almost certainly a Cavendish. But even so, it is a minority in the world’s banana crop.

E Half a billion people in Asia and Africa depend on bananas. Bananas provide the largest source of calories and are eaten daily. Its name is synonymous with food. But the day of reckoning may be coming for the Cavendish and its indigenous kin. Another fungal disease, black Sigatoka, has become a global epidemic since its first appearance in Fiji in 1963. Left to itself, black Sigatoka which causes brown wounds on leaves and pre-mature fruit ripening – cuts fruit yields by 50 to 70 per cent and reduces the productive lifetime of banana plants from 30 years to as little as 2 or 3. Commercial growers keep Sigatoka at bay by a massive chemical assault. Forty sprayings of fungicide a year is typical. But despite the fungicides, diseases such as black Sigatoka are getting more and more difficult to control. “As soon as you bring in a new fungicide, they develop resistance,' says Frison."One thing we can be sure of is that the Sigatoka won't lose in this battle.” Poor farmers, who cannot afford chemicals, have it even worse. They can do little more than watch their plants die. “Most of the banana fields in Amazonia have already been destroyed by the disease,” says Luadir Gasparotto, Brazil's leading banana pathologist with the government research agency EMBRAPA. Production is likely to fall by 70 percent as the disease spreads, he predicts. The only option will be to find a new variety.

F But how? Almost all edible varieties are susceptible to the diseases, so growers cannot simply change to a different banana. With most crops, such a threat would unleash an army of breeders, scouring the world for resistant relatives whose traits they can breed into commercial varieties. Not so with the banana. Because all edible varieties are sterile, bringing in new genetic traits to help cope with pests and diseases is nearly impossible. Nearly, but not totally. Very rarely, a sterile banana will experience a genetic accident that allows an almost normal seed to develop, giving breeders a tiny window for improvement. Breeders at the Honduran Foundation of Agricultural Research have tried to exploit this to create disease-resistant varieties. Further backcrossing with wild bananas yielded a new seedless banana resistant to both black Sigatoka and Panama disease.

G Neither Western supermarket consumers nor peasant growers like the new hybrid. Some accuse it of tasting more like an apple than a banana. Not surprisingly, the majority of plant breeders have till now turned their backs on the banana and got to work on easier plants. And commercial banana companies are now washing their hands of the whole breeding effort, preferring to fund a search for new fungicides instead. “We supported a breeding programme for 40 years, but it wasn't able to develop an alternative to Cavendish. It was very expensive and we got nothing back,” says Ronald Romero, head of research at Chiquita, one of the Big Three companies that dominate the international banana trade.

H Last year, a global consortium of scientists led by Frison announced plans to sequence the banana genome within five years. It would be the first edible fruit to be sequenced. Well, almost edible. The group will actually be sequencing inedible wild bananas from East Asia because many of these are resistant to black Sigatoka. If they can pinpoint the genes that help these wild varieties to resist black Sigatoka, the protective genes could be introduced into laboratory tissue cultures of cells from edible varieties. These could then be propagated into new, resistant plants and passed on to farmers.

I It sounds promising, but the big banana companies have, until now, refused to get involved in GM research for fear of alienating their customers. “Biotechnology is extremely expensive and there are serious questions about consumer acceptance,11 says David McLaughlin, Chiquita’s senior director for environmental affairs. With scant funding from the companies, the banana genome researchers are focusing on the other end of the spectrum. Even if they can identify the crucial genes, they will be a long way from developing new varieties that smallholders will find suitable and affordable. But whatever biotechnology's academic interest, it is the only hope for the banana. Without banana production worldwide will head into a tailspin. We may even see the extinction of the banana as both a lifesaver for hungry and impoverished Africans and as the most popular product on the world’s supermarket shelves.

Questions 1-3

Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

In boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet, write

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet

1. Banana was first eaten as a fruit by humans ……………………………years ago.

2. Banana was first planted in………………………….

3. Wild banana's taste is adversely affected by its……………………………….

Questions 4-10

Look at the following statements (Questions 4-10) and the list of people below Match each statement with the correct person, A-I.

Write the correct letter: A-I, in boxes 4-10 On your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

4. Pest invasion may seriously damage banana industry.

5. The effect of fungal infection in soil is often long-lasting.

6. A commercial manufacturer gave up on breeding bananas for disease resistant

7. Banana disease may develop resistance to chemical sprays.

8. A banana disease has destroyed a large number of banana plantations.

9. Consumers would not accept genetically altered crop.

10. Lessons can be learned from bananas for other crops.

List of People

A     Rodomiro

B     David Maclaughlin

C     Emile Frison

D     Ronald Romero

E      Luadir Gasparotto

F      Geoff Hawtin

Questions 11-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

11. Banana is the oldesrt known fruit

12. Gros Michel is still being used as a commercial product

13. Banana is a main food in some countries

SECTION 2

Computer Provides More Questions

Than Answers

A The island of Antikythera lies 18 miles north of Crete, where the Aegean Sea meets the Mediterranean. Currents there can make shipping treacherous __ and one ship bound for ancient Rome never made it. The ship that sank there was a giant cargo vessel measuring nearly 500 feet long. It came to rest about 200 feet below the surface, where it stayed for more than 2,000 years until divers looking for sponges discovered the wreck a little more than a century ago.

B Inside the hull were a number of bronze and marble statues. From the look of things, the ship seemed to be carrying luxury items, probably made in various Greek islands and bound for wealthy patrons in the growing Roman Empire. The statues were retrieved, along with a lot of other unimportant stuff, and stored. Nine months later, an enterprising archaeologist cleared off a layer of organic material from one of the pieces of junk and found that it looked like a gearwheel. It had inscriptions in Greek characters and seemed to have something to do with astronomy.

C That piece of "Junk" went on to become the most celebrated find from the shipwreck; it is displayed at the National Archaeological Museum of Athens. Research has shown that the wheel was part of a device so sophisticated that its complexity would not be matched for a thousand years — it was also the world’s first known analog computer. The device is so famous that an international conference organized in Athens a couple of weeks ago had only one subject: the Antikythera Mechanism.

D Every discovery about the device has raised new questions. Who built the device, and for what purpose? Why did the technology behind it disappear for the next thousand years? What does the device tell us about ancient Greek culture? And does the marvelous construction, and the precise knowledge of the movement of the sun and moon and Earth that it implies, tell us how the ancients grappled with ideas about determinism and human destiny?

E “We have gear trains from the 9th century in Baghdad used for simpler displays of the solar and lunar motions relative to one another — they use eight gears,' said Frangois Charette, a historian of science in Germany who wrote an editorial accompanying a new study of the mechanism two weeks ago in the journal Nature. "In this case, we have more than 30 gears. To see it on a computer animation makes it mind-boggling. There is no doubt it was a technological masterpiece.”

F The device was probably built between 100 and 140 BC, and the understanding of astronomy it displays seems to have been based on knowledge developed by the Babylonians around 300-700 BC, said Mike Edmunds, a professor of astrophysics at Cardiff University in Britain. He led a research team that reconstructed what the gear mechanism would have looked like by using advanced three- dimensional-imaging technology. The group also decoded a number of the inscriptions. The mechanism explores the relationship between lunar months __ the time it takes for the moon to cycle through its phases, say, full moon to full moon -­and calendar years. The gears had to be cut precisely to reflect this complex relationship; 19 calendar years equal 235 lunar months.

G By turning the gear mechanism, which included what Edmunds called a beautiful system of epicyclic gears that factored in the elliptical orbit of the moon, a person could check what the sky would have looked like on a date in the past, or how it would appear in the future. The mechanism was encased in a box with doors in front and back covered with inscriptions — a sort of instruction manual. Inside the front door were pointers indicating the date and the position of the sun, moon and zodiac, while opening the back door revealed the relationship between calendar years and lunar months, and a mechanism to predict eclipses.

H “If they needed to know when eclipses would occur, and this related to the rising and setting of stars and related them to dates and religious experiences, the mechanism would directly help,” said Yanis Bitsakis, a physicist at the University of Athens who co-wrote the Nature paper. “It is a mechanical computer. You turn the handle and you have a date on the front." Building it would have been expensive and required the interaction of astronomer, engineers, intellectuals and craftspeople. Charette said the device overturned conventional ideas that the ancient Greeks were primarily ivory tower thinkers who did not deign to muddy their hands with technical stuff. It is a reminder, he said, that while the study of history often focuses on written texts, they can tell us only a fraction of what went on at a particular time.

I Imagine a future historian encountering philosophy texts written in our time ~ and an aircraft engine. The books would tell that researcher what a few scholars were thinking today, but the engine would give them a far better window into how technology influenced our everyday lives. Charette said it was unlikely that the device was used by practitioners of astrology, then still in its infancy. More likely, he said, it was bound for a mantelpiece in some rich Roman's home. Given that astronomers of the time already knew how to calculate the positions of the sun and the moon and to predict eclipses without the device, it would have been the equivalent of a device built for a planetarium today __ something to spur popular interest, or at least claim bragging rights.

J Why was the technology that went into the device lost? “The time this was built, the jackboot of Rome was coming through, "Edmunds said. “The Romans were good at town planning and sanitation but were not known for their interest in science." The fact that the device was so complex, and that it was being shipped with a quantity of other luxury items, tells Edmunds that it is very unlikely to have been the on ever made. Its sophistication “is such that it can't have been the only one,” Edmunds said. “There must have been a tradition of making them. We’re always hopeful a better one will surface.” Indeed, he said, he hopes that his study and the renewed interest in the Antikythera Mechanism will prompt second looks by both amateurs and professionals around the world. “The archaeological world may look in their cupboards and maybe say, That isn't a bit of rusty old metal in the cupboard."

Questions 14-18

The reading Passage has ten paragraphs A- J.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-J, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. Content inside the wreck ship

15. Ancient astronomers and craftsman might involve

16. The location of Antikythera Mechanism

17. Details of how it was found

18. Appearance and structure of the mechanism

Questions 19-22

Summary

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

An ancient huge sunk _______________ 19______ was found accidentally by sponges searcher. The ship loaded

with ______ 20______ such as bronze and sculptures. However, an archaeologist found a junk similar to a_______ 21______ which has Greek script on it. This inspiring and elaborated device was found to be the first _______22 _______ in the world.

Questions 23-26

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with opinions or deeds below. Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any letter more than once

A Yanis Bitsakis

B Mike Edmunds

C Francois Charette

23. More complicated than previous device

24. Anticipate to find more Antikythera Mechanism in the future

25. Antikythera Mechanism was found related to moon

26. Mechanism assisted ancient people to calculate movement of stars.

SECTION 3

Save Endangered Language

“Obviously we must do some serious rethinking of our priorities, lest linguistics go down in hisotry as the only science that presided obviously over the disappearance of 90 percent of the very field to which it is dedicated.” – Michael Krauss, "The World's Languages in Crisis".

A Ten years ago Michael Krauss sent a shudder through the discipline of linguistics with his prediction that half the 6,000 or so languages spoken in the world would cease to be uttered within a century.

Unless scientists and community leaders directed a worldwide effort to stabilize the decline of local languages, he warned, nine tenths of the linguistic diversity of humankind would probably be doomed to extinction. Krauss's prediction was little more than an educated guess, but other respected linguists had been clanging out similar alarms. Keneth L. Hale of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology noted in the same journal issue that eight languages on which he had done fieldwork had since passed into extinction. A 1990 survey in Australia found that 70 of the 90 surviving Aboriginal languages were no longer used regularly by all age groups. The same was true for all but 20 of the 175 Native American languages spoken or remembered in the US,, Krauss told a congressional panel in 1992.

B Many experts in the field mourn the loss of rare languages, for several reasons. To start, there is scientific self-interest: some of the most basic questions in linguistics have to do with the limits of human speech, which are far from fully explored. Many researchers would like to know which structural elements of grammar and vocabulary—if anyare truly universal and probably therefore hardwired into the human brain. Other scientists try to reconstruct ancient migration patterns by comparing borrowed words that appear in otherwise unrelated languages. In each of these cases, the wider the portfolio of languages you study, the more likely you are to get the right answers.

C Despite the near constant buzz in linguistics about endangered languages over the past 10 years, the field has accomplished depressingly little. "You would think that there would be some organized response to this dire situation,',some attempt to determine which language can be saved and which should be documented before they disappear, says Sarah G. Thomason, a linguist at the University of Michigan at Ann Arbor. "But there isn't any such effort organized in the profession. It is only recently that it has become fashionable enough to work on endangered languages.55 Six years ago, recalls Douglas H. Whalen of Yale University, "when I asked linguists who was raising money to deal with these problems, I mostly got blank stares." So Whalen and a few other linguists founded the Endangered Languages Fund. In the five years to 2001 they were able to collect only $80,000 for research grants. A similar foundation in England, directed by Nicholas Ostler, has raised just $8,000 since 1995.

D But there are encouraging signs that the field has turned a comer. The Volkswagen Foundation, a German charity, just issued its second round of grants totaling more than $2 million. It has created a multimedia archive at the Max Planck Institute for Psycholinguistics in the Netherlands that can house recordings, grammars, dictionaries and other data on endangered languages. To fill the archive, the foundation has dispatched field linguists to document Aweti (100 or so speakers in Brazil) ,Ega (about 300 speakers in Ivory Coast),Waima?a (a few hundred speakers in East Timor), and a dozen or so other languages unlikely to survive the century. The Ford Foundation has also edged into the arena. Its contributions helped to reinvigorate a master-apprentice program created in 1992 by Leanne Hinton of Berkeley and Native Americans worried about the imminent demise of about 50 indigenous languages in California. Fluent speakers receive $3,000 to teach a younger relative (who is also paid) their native tongue through 360 hours of shared activities, spread over six months. So far about 5 teams have completed the program, Hinton says, transmitting at least some knowledge of 25 languages. "It's too early to call this language revitalization," Hinton admits. "In California the death rate of elderly speakers will always be greater than the recruitment rate of young speakers. But at least we prolong the survival of the language•" That will give linguists more time to record these tongues before they vanish.

E But the master-apprentice approach hasn't caught on outside the U.S., and Hinton's effort is a drop in the sea. At least 440 languages have been reduced to a mere handful of elders, according to the Ethnologue, a catalogue of languages produced by the Dallas-based group SIL International that comes closest to global coverage. For the vast majority of these languages, there is little or no record of their grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation or use in daily life. Even if a language has been fully documented, all that remains once it vanishes from active use is a fossil skeleton, a scattering of features that the scientist was lucky and astute enough to capture. Linguists may be able to sketch an outline of the forgotten language and fix its place on the evolutionary tree, but little more. "How did people start conversations and talk to babies? How did husbands and wives converse?" Hinton asks. "Those are the first things you want to learn when you want to revitalize the language.

F But there is as yet no discipline of "conservation linguistics" as there is for biology. Almost every strategy tried so far has succeeded in some places but failed in others, and there seems to be no way to predict with certainty what will work where. Twenty years ago in New Zealand, Maori speakers set up "language nests, "in which preschoolers were immersed in the native language. Additional Maori-only classes were added as the children progressed through elementary and secondary school. A similar approach was tried in Hawaii, with some success – the number of native speakers has stabilized at 1,000 or so, reports Joseph E. Grimes of SIL International, who is working on Oahu. Students can now get instruction in Hawaiian all the way through university.

G One factor that always seems to occur in the demise of a language is that the speakers begin to have collective doubts about the usefulness of language loyalty. Once they start regarding their own language as inferior to the majority language, people stop using it for all situations. Kids pick up on the attitude and prefer the dominant language. In many cases, people don't notice until they suddenly realize that their kids never speak the language, even at home. This is how Cornish and some dialects of Scottish Gaelic is still only rarely used for daily home life in Ireland, 80 years after the republic was founded with Irish as its first official language.

H Linguists agree that ultimately, the answer to the problem of language extinction is multilingualism. Even uneducated people can learn several languages, as long as they start as children. Indeed, most people in the world speak more than one tongue, and in places such as Cameroon (279 languages), Papua New Guinea (823) and India (387) it is common to speak three or four distinct languages and a dialect or two as well. Most Americans and Canadians, to the west of Quebec, have a gut reaction that anyone speaking another language in front of them is committing an immoral act. You get the same reaction in Australia and Russia. It is no coincidence that these are the areas where languages are disappearing the fastest. The first step in saving dying languages is to persuade the world's majorities to allow the minorities among them to speak with their own voices.

Questions 27-33

The reading passage has eight paragraphs, A-H

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list below.

Write the correct number, i – xi, in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings                                                    

i. data consistency needed for language

ii. consensus on an initiativerecommendation for saving dying out languages

iii. positive gains for protection

iv. minimum requirement for saving a language

v. Potential threat to minority language

vi. a period when there was absent of real effort made.

vii. native language programs launched

viii. Lack in confidence in young speakers as a negative factor

ix. Practise in several developing countries

x. Value of minority language to linguists.

xi. government participation in language field

27. Paragraph A

28. Paragraph B

29. Paragraph D

30. Paragraph E

31. Paragraph F

32. Paragraph G

33. Paragraph H

Example: Paragraph C

Questions 34-38

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-F) with opinions or deeds below. Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 34-38 on your answer sheet.

A Nicholas Ostler

B Michael Krauss

C Joseph E. Grimes

D Sarah G. Thomason

E Keneth L. Hale

F Douglas H. Whalen

34. Reported language conservation practice in Hawaii

35. Predicted that many languages would disappear soon

36. Experienced process that languages die out personally

37. Raised language fund in England

38. Not enough effort on saving until recent work

Questions 39-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

39. What is real result of master-apprentice program sponsored by The Ford Foundation!

A Teach children how to speak

B  Revive some endangered languages in California

C  postpone the dying date for some endangered languages

D Increase communication between students

40. What should majority language speakers do according to the last paragraph?

A       They should teach their children endangered language in free lessons

B       They should learn at least four languages

C       They should show their loyalty to a dying language

D    They should be more tolerant to minority language speaker

ANSWER KEYS

1 Ten thousand 2 South – East Asia 3 Hard seeds/ seeds
4 F 5 A 6 D
7 C 8 E 3 B
10 C 11 NOT GIVEN 12 FALSE
13 TURE  
14 B 15 H 16 C
17 A 18 G 19 Cargo vessel
20 Luxury items 21 Gearwheel 22 Analog computer
23 C 24 B 25 B
26 A  
27 v 28 X 29 Iii
30 i 31 Vii 32 Viii
33 ii 34 C 35 B
36 E 37 A 38 D
39 C 40 D

 

 

IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST 35 WITH ANSWERS

Posted: 10 Jan 2017 11:59 PM PST

Section 1 

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below

How Mobile Telephony Turned into a Health Scare

The technology which enabled mobile phones was previously used in the kind of two- way radio which could be found in taxis and emergency vehicles. Although this was a great development, it was not really considered mobile telephony because it could not be used to dial into existing phone networks. It was known as simplex technology, operating on the same principles as a walkie-talkie, which required that a user press a button, meaning that only one person at a time could talk. Simplex meant that there was only one communication frequency in use at any one time.

The first mobile phones to connect to telephone networks were often installed in cars before the hand-held version came on the market and the revolution in mobile technology began. The first generation of mobile phones (called 1G) were large, heavy and analogue and it was not until the invention of the second generation (2G) in the 1990s that digital networks could be used. The digital element enabled faster signalling. At the same time, developments in battery design and energy-saving electronics allowed the phones themselves to become smaller and therefore more truly mobile. The second generation allowed for text messaging too, and this began with the first person-to-person text message in Finland in 1993, although a machine-generated text message had been successfully sent two years earlier.

None of this would have been possible without the development of duplex technology to replace the relatively primitive simplex technology of the first phase of mobile communication. In duplex technology, there are two frequencies available simultaneously. These two frequencies can be obtained by the principle of Frequency Division Duplex (FDD). To send two signals wirelessly, it is necessary to create a paired spectrum, where one band carries the uplink (from phone to antenna) and the other carries the downlink (from antenna to phone).Time Division Duplex (TDD) can achieve the same thing, but instead of splitting the frequency, the uplink and downlink are switched very rapidly, giving the impression that one frequency is used.

For mobile telephony to work to its fullest potential, it needs to have a network through which it can relay signals.This network depends on base stations which send and receive the signals. The base stations tend to be simple constructions, or masts, on top of which are mounted the antennas. With the rapid increase in demand for mobile services, the infrastructure of antennas in the United Kingdom is now huge.

Many thousands of reports have appeared claiming that the signals relayed by these antennas are harmful to human and animal health. The claims focus on the fact that the antennas are transmitting radio waves in microwave form. In some ways, public demand is responsible for the increase in the alleged threat to health. Until quite recently, voice and text messages were transmitted using 2G technology. A 2G mast can send a low-frequency microwave signal approximately 35 kilometres.Third generation (3G) technology allows users to wirelessly download information from the internet and is extremely popular. The difference is that 3G technology uses a higher frequency to carry the signals, allowing masts to emit more radiation. This problem Is intensified by the need to have masts in closer proximity to each other and to the handsets themselves. Whatever danger there was in 2G signals is greatly multiplied by the fact that the 3G masts are physically much closer to people.

Government authorities have so far refused to accept that there is a danger to public health, and tests carried out by governments and telecommunications companies have been restricted to testing to see if heat is being produced from these microwaves. According to many, however, the problem is not heat, but electromagnetic waves which are found near the masts.

It is believed that some people, though not all, have a condition known as electro- sensitivity or electro-hypersensitivity (EHS), meaning that the electromagnetism makes them ill in some way.The actual health threat from these pulsed microwave signals is an area which greatly needs more research. It has been claimed that the signals affect all living organisms, including plants, at a cellular level and cause symptoms in people ranging from tiredness and headaches to cancer. Of particular concern is the effect that increased electromagnetic fields may have on children and the fear is that the negative effects on their health may not manifest themselves until they have had many years of continued exposure to high levels. Tests carried out on animals living close to this form of radiation are particulady useful because scientists can rule out the psychological effect that humans might be exhibiting due to their fear of possible contamination.

Of course, the danger of exposure exists when using a mobile phone but since we do this for limited periods, between which it is believed our bodies can recover, it is not considered as serious as the effect of living or working near a mast (sometimes mounted on the very building we occupy) which is transmitting electromagnetic waves 24 hours a day.

Questions 1 -6

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

1   What were early two-way radios unable to use?

2   What did you have to do in order to talk on a radio using simplex technc

3   Where were early mobile phones generally used?

4   What development introduced digital technology into mobile telephony?

5   Apart from the area of electronics, in which area did developments help make phones more mobile?

6   What type of text message was the first one ever sent?

Questions 7-10

Complete the diagram.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Frequency Division Duplex (FĐ) two signals sent 7________________

Two bands together, known as a 8________________

IELTS Reading Practice Test 35.02

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

11   3G technology is believed to be more of a threat to health because

A the signals are transmitted over much greater distances than before.

B the masts are closer together and emit higher frequencies.

C the signals are carrying both voice and text messages.

D the modern handsets needed emit more radiation.

12   Why might the testing of animals give us more reliable results?

A because most of them live closer to the masts

B because they are continually exposed to higher levels of radiation

C because they are not affected at a cellular level

D because they are not afraid of the effects of radiation

13   What is believed to limit the danger from mobile phones?

A not using them continuously

B turning them off when not in use

C mounting a mast on the building where you live or work

D keeping healthy and getting enough sleep


Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

Some Facts and Theories about Flu

The flu, more properly known as influenza, takes its name from the fact that it is so easily transmitted from person to person (influenza is the Italian word for’influence’). Usually, contamination occurs through direct contact with secretions from an infected person. Its spread is also possible from contaminated airborne particles, such as those that occur when someone coughs or sneezes. However, it should be made clear that the risk is not great from simply being in the same room as an infected person, since the flu virus, unlike other respiratory viruses, does not dissolve in the air. Within 4-6 hours of someone catching the flu, the virus multiplies in infected cells and the cells burst, spreading the virus to other cells nearby.

The spread continues for up to 72 hours, the exact length of time depending on the body’s immune system response and the strength of the particular strain of flu. The range of human responses to the flu virus has been of interest to scientists for many years. This is because the effect can vary from no infection to a rapid and deadly spread of the virus to many people. One area of study that has received particular attention is the immune system response of the individual. Where a person’s immune system is healthy, the virus is attacked as it enters the body, usually in the respiratory tract. This lessens the severity of the illness. In contrast, people with compromised immune systems (typical in the young, where it is not fully developed, or in the old and the sick, where it is not working efficiently), often suffer the worst effects.

One of the body’s responses to flu is the creation of antibodies which recognise and destroy that particular strain of flu virus. What fascinates most researchers in the field is that the human body seems capable of storing these antibodies over a whole lifetime in case of future attack from the same or similar strains of flu. It was while researching these antibodies that scientists turned their attention back to what was possibly the worst ever flu pandemic in the world. The actual number of deaths is disputed, but the outbreak in 1918 killed between 20 and 50 million people. It is also estimated that one fifth of the population of the world may have been infected.

Through tests done on some of the survivors of the 1918 outbreak, it was discovered that, 90 years later, they still possessed the antibodies to that strain of flu, and some of them were actually still producing the antibodies. Work is now focused on why these people survived in the first place, with one theory being that they had actually been exposed to an earlier, similar strain, therefore developing immunity to the 1918 strain. It is hoped that, in the near future, we might be able to isolate the antibodies and use them to vaccinate people against further outbreaks.

Yet vaccination against the flu is an imprecise measure. At best, the vaccine protects us from the variations of flu that doctors expect that year. If their predictions are wrong in any particular year, being vaccinated will not prevent us from becoming infected. This is further complicated by the fact that there are two main types of flu, known as influenza A and influenza B. Influenza B causes less concern as its effects are usually less serious. Influenza A, however, has the power to change its genetic make-up. Although these genetic changes are rare, they create entirely new strains of flu against which we have no protection. It has been suggested that this is what had happened immediately prior to the 1918 outbreak, with research indicating that a genetic shift had taken place in China.

In 2005, another genetic shift in an influenza A virus was recorded, giving rise to the H5N1 strain, otherwise known as avian flu, or bird flu. Typical of such new strains, we have no way of fighting it and many people who are infected with it die. Perhaps more worrying is that it is a strain only previously found in birds but which changed its genetic make-up in a way that allowed it to be transmitted to humans. Most of the fear surrounding this virus is that it will change again, developing the ability to pass from human to human. If that change does happen, scientists and doctors can reasonably expect a death rate comparable to that which occurred in 1918 and, given that we can now travel more quickly and more easily between countries, infecting many more people than was previously possible, it could be several times worse.

Questions 14-20

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

TRUE                                 if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                                if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN                      if there is no information on this

14   The only way to catch flu is if someone coughs or sneezes near you.

15   You become aware of the symptoms of flu within 4-6 hours of infection.

16   The effect of a flu infection can depend on how strong the strain is.

17   Those who are more likely to suffer badly with the flu include very young or very old people

18   Although antibodies last a lifetime, scientists have found they get weaker with age.

19   Vaccination is largely ineffective against flu.

20   Another change in the genetic make-up of the H5N1 strain could kill more people than the 1918 epidemic.

Questions 21 -24

Classify the following statements as characterising

A something known by scientists to be true B something believed by scientists to be true C something known by scientists to be false. Write the correct letter, A, B or C.

21   Sharing a room with a flu sufferer presents a very high risk to your health.

22   One fifth of the people in the world caught the flu in 1918.

23   Influenza A viruses do not change their genetic make-up frequently.

24   The H5N1 strain evolved in or before 2005.

Questions 25 and 26

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

25   In which part of the body do antibodies normally attack the flu virus?

26   What kind of transmission of the H5N1 strain are people afraid might become reality?

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

Changes in International Commerce

How ethics and fair trade can make a difference

The purpose of international commerce is to buy things from and sell things to people in other countries. Hundreds, and indeed thousands, of years ago, this actually worked quite well. People who travelled to foreign lands, often by ship, would take with them items for trade. Agricultural countries would, for example, trade olive oil or wine for weapons or other worked items. All that needed to be negotiated was a fair’price’for the items. (How many axes is a barrel of oil worth, for example?) Currency did not enter into the first deals but, even when it did, few problems existed to complicate matters barring disagreements over the value of goods.

Today, fixing a fair price remains at the centre of international commerce. When we look at the deal from the point of view of the seller, market research must determine the price at which the goods will be sold. This may vary greatly from country to country and people are often surprised to see exactly the same item for sale at two or three times the price it sells for in another country.Taxation and local government controls are sometimes behind this, but often it comes down to the fact that people in poor countries simply cannot afford to pay the same amount of money as those in rich countries. These are the things a seller has to bear in mind when preparing a price list for goods in each country.

In most cases, the purpose of setting a suitable price is to sell the maximum number of units. Usually, this is the way to guarantee the biggest profit. One exception is in the selling of luxury or specialist goods. These are often goods for which there is a limited market Here, slightly different rules apply because the profit margin (the amount of money a producer makes on each item) is much higher. For instance, nearly everyone wants to own a television or a mobile phone, and there is a lot of competition in the area of production, forcing the prices to be competitive too. The producers have to sell a large number of items to make a profit because their profit margin is small. But not everyone wants to buy hand-made jewellery, or a machine for sticking labels onto bottles.This enables the producer to charge a price much higher than the cost of making the item, increasing the profit margin. But at the heart of any sale, whether they sell many items for a small profit, ora few items for a large profit the prime motivation for the producer is to make as much profit as possible.

At least, that was the case until relatively recently when, to the great surprise of many, companies started trading without profit as their main objective. Ethical trade began as an attempt to cause as little damage as possible to the producers of raw materials and manufactured goods in poor countries.This movement put pressure on the industry to see to it that working conditions and human rights were not damaged by the need for poorer people to produce goods. In short, it drew to the world’s attention the fact that many poor people were being exploited by big businesses in their drive to make more profit.

There have been many examples throughout the developing world where local producers were forced by economic pressure to supply cash crops such as tea, coffee and cotton to major industries. These people are frequently not in a position to fix their prices, and are often forced by market conditions to sell for a price too low to support the producers and their community. Worse still, while the agricultural land is given over to cash crops, it robs the local people of the ability to grow their own food. In time, through over-production, the land becomes spent and infertile, leading to poverty, starvation, and sometimes the destruction of the whole community.

Fair trade policies differ from ethical trade policies in that they take the process a stage further. Where ethical policies are designed to keep the damage to a minimum, fair trade organisations actually work to improve conditions among producers and their communities. Fairtrade organisations view sustainability as a key aim. This involves implementing policies where producers are given a fair price for the goods they sell, so that they and their communities can continue to operate.

Although many big businesses are cynical about an operation that does not regard profit as a main driving force, the paradox is that it will help them too. With sustainability as their main aim, fair trade organisations not only help the poorer producers obtain a reasonable standard of living, but they also help guarantee a constant supply of raw materials. This form of sustainability benefits everyone, whether their motive is making a profit or improving the lives of the world’s poorer people.

Questions 27-31

Classify the following as being a result of A fair trade policies B ethical trade policies C a country being poor. Write the correct letter, A, B or C.

27   Manufactured goods are obtainable at a lower price than elsewhere.

28   Harm to producers of raw materials is minimised.

29   Human rights are respected.

30   Land is not used to produce food for the local population.

31   The local community has more chance of survival.

Questions 32-36

Complete the flow chart below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Companies carry out 32___________________to decide the price that their goods are sold at in each country. The prices of the same goods can vary in different countries because of 33___________________or taxes. The 34_____________________is finalised, depending on how much customers in a particular market can afford. To ensure a profit, manufacturers aim to sell the 35_______________________ of a particular item. Manufacturers can have a higher profit margin on luxury or specialist goods which often have a 36_________________________

Questions 37-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

37   According to the writer, what might early traders have disagreed about?

A the comparative values of the goods

B which currency to use for their deal

C which items they wanted as exchange

D the quality of the goods being traded

38   What is the main consequence of a product being in demand?

A higher prices

B smaller profit margins

C fewer items being produced

D less market competition

39   How might an agricultural community be destroyed?

A because companies in richer countries steal from them

B because they ask an unrealistically high price for their produce

C because they over-use the land in order to grow cash crops

D because the crops take much too long to grow

40   The word paradox in the final paragraph refers to the fact that

A poorer people will become richer than the people who run big businesses.

B by being cynical, the big businesses have helped produce a result they do not want.

C the suppliers of raw materials will sell them to big businesses for a huge profit.

D big businesses will gain from these policies although they don't support them.


ANSWER KEY FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST

1  (existing) phone networks

2  press a button

3  (in) cars

4  2G / the second generation

5  battery design

6  machine-generated

7  wirelessly

8   paired spectrum

9   uplink

10  downlink

11  B because it says in paragraph 5: '3G technology uses a higher frequency to carry the signals» allowing masts to emit more radiation. This problem is intensified by the need to have masts in closer proximity to each other

12   D because it says in paragraph 7: 'Tests carried out on animals living close to this form of radiation are particularly useful because scientists can rule out the psychological effect that humans might be exhibiting due to their fear of possible contamination.'

13   A because it says in paragraph 8: 'the danger of exposure exists when using a mobile phone but since we do this for limited periods, between which it is believed our bodies can recover, it is not considered as serious as the effect of living or working near a mast'

14  FALSE because it says in paragraph 1: 'Usually, contamination occurs through direct contact with secretions from an infected person. Its spread is also possible from … coughs or sneezes'

15  NOT GIVEN because the final sentence of paragraph 1 describes the effect on the cells of the body, not what the infected person is aware of.

16  TRUE because it says in paragraph 2: 'The spread continues for up to 72 hours, the exact length of time depending on the body's immune system response and the strength of the particular strain of flu.'

17  TRUE because it says in paragraph 2: 'people with compromised immune systems (typical in the young, where it is not fully developed, or in the old and the sick, where it is not working efficiently), often suffer the worst effects'.

18  NOT GIVEN because it says in paragraph 4 that some survivors from 1918 still had antibodies and some were still producing them, but no information is given about whether they were weaker.

19  FALSE because it says in paragraph 5: 'the vaccine protects us from the variations of flu that doctors expect that year.'

20  TRUE because it says in the final paragraph: 'scientists and doctors can reasonably expect a death rate comparable to that which occurred in 1918 and … it could be several times worse.'

21  C because in paragraph 1 it says: 'it should be made dear that the risk is not great from simply being in the same room as an infected person'.

22  B because in paragraph 3 it says: 'It is also estimated that one fifth of the population of the world may have been infected.'

23  C because in paragraph 5 it says: 'Although these genetic changes are rare’.

24  A because in paragraph 6 it says: 'In 2005, another genetic shift in an influenza A virus was recorded, giving rise to the H5N1 strain.

25  (the) respiratory tract

26  human to human

27  C because in paragraph 2 it says: 'people in poor countries simply cannot afford to pay the same amount of money as those in rich countries'.

28  B because it says in paragraph 4: 'Ethical trade began as an attempt to cause as little damage as possible to the producers of raw materials and manufactured goods in poor countries*

29  B because it says in paragraph 4: ‘This movement put pressure on the industry to see to it that working conditions and human rights were not damaged by the need for poorer people to produce goods'

30  C because it says in paragraph 5: 'Worse still, while the agricultural land is given over to cash crops, it robs the local people of the ability to grow their own food.'

31  A because it says in paragraph 6: 'Fair trade organisations view sustainability as a key aim. This involves implementing policies where producers are given a fair price for the goods they sell, so that they and their communities can continue to operate*

32  (market) research

33  (local) government controls

34  price list

35  maximum number

36  limited market

37  A because it says in paragraph 1: 'All that needed to be negotiated was a fair 'price' for the items. (How many axes is a barrel of oil worth, for example?)'

38  B because it says in paragraph 3: 'nearly everyone wants to own a television or a mobile phone, and there is a lot of competition in the area of production, forcing the prices to be competitive too. The producers have to sell a large number of items to make a profit because their profit margin is small.'

39  C because it says in paragraph 5: 'while the agricultural land is given over to cash crops, it robs the local people of the ability to grow their own food. In time, through over-production, the land becomes spent and infertile, leading to … the destruction of the whole community.'

40  D because it says in paragraph 7 that big businesses 'are cynical' but that 'it will help them too'.

Discern – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Posted: 10 Jan 2017 10:45 PM PST

Discern – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing

Discern /dɪˈsɜːn/ (Verb)

Meaning:

(formal) to notice or understand something by thinking about it carefully or be able to see something by looking carefully

Synonyms:

Recognise, Identify, Distinguish

Word Family:

  • Adjective: Discernible
  • Verb: Discern
  • Adverb: Discernibly

Examples:

  • Officials were keen to discern how much public support there was
  • Politicians are good at discerning public opinion.
  • There are many other issues where this same pattern can be discerned.
  • Lucas claims that such a relationship can be discerned in his data.

Exercises:

Try to use this word “discern” in your writing 

Writing Task 2 Topic:

People should follow the customs and traditions when people start to live in a new country. To what extent do you agree or disagree?

Sample Essay:

Many people argue that foreigners should adapt to the local customs and traditions when they come to reside in a new country. I completely agree with this view.

Newcomers will certainly face difficulties if they do not conform to the norms of social behaviour in the host country. Firstly, it will become almost impossible for them to blend into their new environment. For example, an entrepreneur who comes to live in a new country and starts up a business must discern the business practices of that country. There are bound to be many pitfalls, not only legal ones but also simply in terms of winning and keeping customers. Secondly, recent immigrants might fall foul of the law if they do not respect the behaviour and customs of locals. In Singapore, for instance, residents will consider newcomers dirty and ill-mannered if they litter the street or spit gum in public places.

There are also many benefits for foreigners when they do adopt the customs and traditions of their new country of residence. One advantage is that local people will be more welcoming when they feel that the newcomers are showing respect for the local way of life. The establishment of closer links with the host community might lead to greater integration and mutual understanding. Another benefit is the richness of the experience which newcomers will gain from enjoying aspects of local customs and traditions, enabling them to participate in community life and avoid social isolation. During festivals and national holidays, especially, they will feel like they ‘belong’ in their new country.

In conclusion, I would argue that it is essential for new residents to follow the traditions and habits of locals in the host community in order to integrate fully into society.

  • The norms of social behaviour: standards of behaviour that are typical of and accepted within society
  • Host country: a country which receives visitors or new residents.
  • Blend into: to look very similar to the surrounding people or things, so that it is difficult to distinguish what is new.
  • Pitfalls: a hidden danger or difficult, which it is not easy or possible to see at first
  • Fall foul of the law: to get into trouble with the police because you are doing something illegal
  • Integration: the process of mixing people who have previously been separated
  • Mutual understanding: the feeling which two or more people share equally.
  • Social isolation: the state of being alone in society.

 

Tuesday, January 10, 2017

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test

IELTS Materials and Resources, Get IELTS Tips, Tricks & Practice Test


Have Chemistry – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS

Posted: 10 Jan 2017 08:48 AM PST

Have Chemistry  – Idiom Of The Day For IELTS Speaking.

Definition: 

to feel a strong attraction, to get along very well from the start; usually refers to an inner feeling people have about someone they’ve just meet

Example:

“We had strong chemistry right away.”

“We dated a few times, but there was no chemistry”

Exercise: 

  1. Choose the suitable idiom to complete the sentence below.
    “At the first time I met her, I knew that we _________________ “
    A. took a bow
    B. throwing money down the drain
    C. hit and run
    D. had chemistry
  2. Describe your best friend. Try to use this idiom in your speech. You should say:
    – Who he or she is
    – When you met him or her at the first time
    – What he or she looks like
    And explain why he or she became your best friend

Negate – Word Of The Day For IELTS

Posted: 10 Jan 2017 01:41 AM PST

Negate – Word Of The Day For IELTS Speaking And Writing

Negate /nɪˈɡeɪt/ (Verb)

Meaning:

(formal) to prevent something from having any effect

Synonyms:

Neutralize, Cancel out

Examples:

  • Efforts to expand the tourist industry could be negated by reports that the sea is highly polluted.
  • Many of these emotions energise greater effort but others negate effort and lead to dissatisfaction, stress and withdrawal.
  • Within a few weeks, they accrue a debt that negates the salary their recruiter had promised them.

Exercises:

Try to use this word “negate” in your speech

Describe a historical place that you know about

You should say:

  • What the place is
  • Where it is located
  • What is the historical significance of the place

Sample Answer:

I am going to talk about an amazing historical place that I know about, even though I've never visited it.  I'll tell you what it is, where it is and as much as I can about the historical meaning of the place and finally my own reactions regarding it.

I want to tell you about Stonehenge.  This is an ancient set of standing stones, arranged in a circle.  It is located in Wiltshire, in England, but I think it would be fair to say the image of it would be recognised worldwide, as it is possibly one of the most famous historic sites in the world.

In terms of the meaning of the place, it's really impossible to say.  It is so very old, even archaeologists aren't sure exactly when it was built, estimates go back to as long ago as 3000 BC, which is mind boggling to me!  It is certainly accurate to describe it as a prehistoric monument.  Some people think it might have started as a burial mound and be even more ancient that 5,000 years.  The colossal slabs are arranged like huge door frames, no-one really knows how they were erected without the technology of modern times, but everyone agrees it was an incredible feat of engineering and showed foresight and tenacity in spaces!  However, it is certain that they were somehow aligned so that at key stages of the lunar and solar cycles, the way the light strikes the stones is of some significance.  Apparently, it was deliberately constructed so that the rising sun only reached the middle of the stones for just one day of the year.

Lots of people like to try and imagine what sort of ceremonies and importance the stones might have had for the people who built it, but some scientist negated this hypothesis.  Even today, modern day druids have for many years gathered at the stones for the summer solstice (longest day of the year) and winter solstice (shortest day of the year) to watch the sunrise and mark the event with their own celebrations.

For me, I think this is the ultimate historical place, even though I have yet to visit it.  It is just so remarkable to think it was constructed all those thousands of years ago just by physical labour. Even the stones themselves – the largest of which are up to 30 feet and weigh about 25 tonnes, had to be brought to the site from about 20 miles away, how on earth was that possible? For me, the stones prove that with determination, tenacity and working together it is sometimes possible to achieve what seems impossible.  At the same time, the way they have endured over time gives perspective on our place in the world.  Time passes, people and generations pass too, but they can leave a legacy behind even if it only one of many unanswered questions for future people to ponder over!

  • Mind blogging: extremely surprising and difficult to understand or imagine
  • Prehistoric monument: a very old building or place that is important historically
  • Colossal slabs: large stones
  • Ponder over: to spend time thinking carefully and seriously about a problem, a difficult question, or something that has happened

IELTS Reading Practice Test 34 With Answers

Posted: 09 Jan 2017 11:59 PM PST

Section 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

The Rise and Fall of the British Textile Industry

Textile production in Britain can be said to have its roots as an industry at the beginning of the 18th century, when Thomas Crotchet and George Sorocold established what is thought to be the first factory built in Britain. It was a textile mill with a waterwheel as its source of power, the latest machinery, and even accommodation for the workers. As well as possibly being the first sweatshop in the modem sense, it was the beginning of the end for traditional textile production.

For hundreds of years the spinning and weaving of cloth had been done manually by men, women and children in their own homes. The yarn would be combed and spun using a spindle, then woven on a hand loom, and what they produced would be mainly for local consumption.Technology far more sophisticated than the spindle and hand-loom would change all that.

The demand for cotton textiles had been growing since the Middle Ages, fostered by the importation of high quality cotton fabrics from the Middle East and India. So how were local producers to fight off the competition? The imported fabrics were of course expensive, so textile makers (not just in Britain but throughout Europe) produced mixed fabrics and cotton substitutes. They also had foreign textiles banned. But the key to the increased productivity needed to meet the demand, was machine production. It would be fester, cheaper and the finished products would be consistent in quality. Not least of the advantages was that it would allow manufacturers to market their goods on a large, if not yet global, scale.

The story of the growth of the British textile industry from about 1733 and for the next two hundred years is one of constant technological innovation and expansion. In 1733 John Kay invented the fly-shuttle, which made the hand-loom more efficient, and in 1764 James Hargreaves came up with the spinning jenny, which among other things had the effect of raising productivity eightfold. The next great innovator was Richard Arkwright, who in 1768 employed John Kay (of the fly-shuttle) to help him build more efficient machinery. He was a man with a vision – to mechanise textile production – and by 1782 he had a network of mills across Britain. As the water-powered machinery, though not yet fully mechanised, became more complex, Kay began to use steam engines for power.The first power-loom, however, which was invented in 1785 by Dr Edmund Cartwright, really did mechanise the weaving stage of textile manufacture.

The pace of growth quickened with the expansion of Britain's influence in the world and the acquisition of colonies from which cheap raw materials could be imported. For example, in a single decade, from 1781 to 1791, imports of cotton into Britain quadrupled, going on to reach 100 million pounds in weight in 1815 and 263 million in 1830. The increase in exports is equally impressive; in 1751 £46,000 worth of cloth was exported and by the end of the century this had risen to £5.4 million. By the end of the 19th century the figure had soared to close on £50 million. Britain was now supplying cheaper and better quality clothing to a global market. Yet during the course of the 20th century Britain lost its position as a major textile manufacturer.

So what happened? There are a number of views on this question, not all of them conflicting, and where there is disagreement it is usually about when the decline began. Whether it began before the First World War (1914-18), or during the inter-war years (1919- 1939), or after 1945, most economists would give roughly the same reasons.To start with, there was competition from abroad, especially from developing countries in the Far East, notably Japan. It was thought by manufacturers that the best way to combat this increased competition was to modernise. However, management and the labour unions were unable to agree on how to handle this situation.

Modernisation would mean people losing their jobs and possibly a change in labour practices. Such changes as were made served only to slow down the industry’s decline rather than help regain its predominant position. Economically less developed countries, on the other hand, had the advantage of being able to provide low wage competition, without the problem of powerful labour unions.

There are, of course, many other reasons for the textile industry’s decline, two of which became particularly noticeable in the late twentieth century and are related. The first is out­sourcing, when manufacturers establish factories in countries where there is cheap labour. This obviously leads to less demand for locally-produced goods. Related to this, the textile and clothing industries have acquired a bad reputation for exploiting workers, often illegal immigrants, in sweatshops where they are forced to work long hours and are paid far less than the minimum wage.

We seem to be back with Crotchet and Sorocold and their first live-in factory. The globalising trend of out sourcing, however, was a rational response to the growing competition from overseas, which, it goes without saying, does not excuse the exploitation of workers. The British industry itself, while no longer holding a key place in the global textile market, has adapted itself and now concentrates more on the world of fashion and design, where it seems to be doing quite well.

Questions 1 -6

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Textile Manufacture

Early history

Begins as a cottage industry

Products hand-woven and made for 1……………………………………………

Local producers face 2…………………………………………………… from overseas

Ways found to deal with situation

Imported fabrics 3……………………………………………………… , mixed cottons produced

Early technology

Machine production needed to 4…………………………………………………… for cotton fabrics

Improved technology (such as the fly-shuttle) more 5……………………………………. and productive

Machinery begins to be powered by 6……………………………………………………..

Questions 7-9

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

A the power-loom7  Which of the following innovations increased productivity by 800%?

B the steam engine

C the spinning jenny

D the fly-shuttle

8  During which period was the British textile industry at its peak?

A 1733-1785

B 1781-1791

C 1791-1830

D 1830-1900

9  Which of the following was a major cause of the British textile industry's decline?

A the expansion of foreign textile industries

B the loss of overseas markets

C there being no demand for products

D labour becoming too expensive

Questions 10-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1 ?

TRUE                      if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN           if there is no information on this

10  Foreign textiles were banned because of their inferior quality.

11  Richard Arkwright built the first fully mechanised textile mill.

12  In less developed countries, the industry could rely on cheap labour.

13  Out-sourcing was one method used to compete with foreign manufacturers.

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

What is an ASBO?

Ask somebody to make a list of crimes and they will probably come up with the usual suspects that you or I would: murder, robbery, assault, burglary and so on.They might even include acts which are merely’against the law’ like parking on a double yellow line.

But if you ask them to make a list of anti social behaviours, you are getting into an area where there is going to be considerable disagreement This didn’t stop the UK government which introduced Anti-Social Behaviour Orders, or ASBOs, in 1998 as part of the Crime and Disorder Act – legislation designed to deal with practically all aspects of criminal activity and disorderly behaviour.

A subjective definition of anti social behaviour permits you to cast your net wide and include anything you find personally disagreeable; the legal definition is also widely inclusive. To quote the Crime and Disorder Act it is behaviour which ’causes or is likely to cause harassment alarm or distress to one or more people who are not in the same household as the perpetrator’. This includes, among many other things, foul and abusive language, threatening behaviour, shouting, disorderly conduct, vandalism, intimidation, behaviour as the result of drug or alcohol misuse, graffiti and noise which is excessive, particularly at night.

The idea is that ASBOs are sanctions designed to deal with issues that affect everyone in the community and as such are civil sanctions, not criminal ones, and need the cooperation of the community to be effective. For example, a private individual cannot apply for an ASBO; he or she must make a complaint to the police or local authority, who will then work together to gather more information and build up evidence. This involves getting witnesses, among whom will no doubt be neighbours and acquaintances, to make statements to the authorities. When the authorities are satisfied that they have enough evidence, the local council applies to the magistrates’court to have an ASBO imposed

We still haven't decided what constitutes anti-social behaviour. It doesn’t have to be physical violence, of course, but is far easier to identify and deal with if it is. What about threatening behaviour? We’re not talking here about direct threats such as ‘lf you come round here again. I’ll beat you up!’, but situations perceived as threatening. Let's say a pensioner or a person of timid disposition is on their way home and they run into a group of young people who are shouting, swearing and kicking a ball about and who happen to make a few unkind . remarks as the person passes. Let’s say the person is alarmed or feels threatened by the situation. Does it merit getting the ASBO process going?

In feet, young people merely hanging out in public places, however boisterous their behaviour might seem to be to some people, are not considered to be indulging in anti-social behaviour. However, there is a proviso. Such behaviour in its own right is not considered anti-social unless it is thought it is being done with other, more serious, behavioural attitudes involved. This, of course, can be very subjective.

A person faced with an ASBO can argue in their defence that their behaviour was reasonable and unthreatening.This too is subjective, and both sides’ claims are open to wide interpretation. Something else that has to be taken into account here is that ASBOs are made on an individual basis even if that person is part of a group of people committing anti-social behaviour. If a case reaches the magistrates’court, witnesses can be called to provide further evidence for or against the defendant. However, the magistrate, as well as considering the complaints made against the defendant, will take into account his or her family situation, welfare issues, and whether or not he or she has been victimised or discriminated against It is worth bearing in mind, though, that witnesses can be intimidated or otherwise persuaded not to appear in court and give evidence.

When the Crime and Disorder Act came into force, ASBOs were generally intended to be a measure to deal with adult anti social behaviour, yet within the Act it states that an order can be applied for against any individual over the age often years old. It is a striking fact that the majority of ASBOs imposed since the law was enacted have been handed out to young people and children.

The question is, have they been effective? The government, naturally, claims that they have brought about a real improvement in the quality of life in communities around the country. Nay-sayers, such as civil rights campaigners, claim the measures are far too open to abuse. Some say they go too far and some that they don't go far enough and lack bite. However, a genuine impediment to their effectiveness is that to impose an ASBO takes a lot of time and paperwork, involving the cooperation of community, police and local council, and they are very expensive to implement One estimate is that an ASBO can cost in excess of £20,000. What all this means is that ASBOs are being used very rarely in many parts of the country. So the jury is still out as to how effective they really are.

Question 14-16

Choose THREE letters A-H.

NB Your answers may be given in any order.

Which THREE of the following statements are true of ASBOs, according to the text?

A They were introduced to deal with specific crimes.

B Parking on a double yellow line could get you served with an ASBO.

C Swearing is one of the offences referred to in the Crime and Disorder Act.

D Asa private householder you can apply for an ASBO against a noisy neighbour.

E It is not illegal for young people to gather in groups in public places.

F An ASBO cannot be served on a group of people behaving in a disorderly manner.

G A large proportion of those served with ASBOs are over the age of 21.

H Most people agree that ASBOs have been effective all over the country.

Questions 17-19

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D

17  The writer suggests that

A anti-social behaviour should be seen as a crime.

B few people agree on how to define a crime.

C anti-social behaviour is difficult to define.

D the legal definition of crime is too exclusive.

18  What surprised the writer about the imposition of ASBOs?

A the number of ten-year-olds that had been given one

B that very few adults had been served with ASBOs

C that most of those served with ASBOs were youngsters

D how few ASBOs had been imposed since 1998

19  In the writer's opinion, how effective have ASBOs been?

A There isn't enough evidence to decide.

B They are too expensive to be effective.

C They are ineffective because they are not strict enough.

D Being open to abuse renders them ineffective.

Question 20-26

Complete the sentences.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

20  The official_____________________________ says that anti-social behaviour is behaviour which can cause alarm or distress.

21   Along with swearing and destruction of public or private property, making ____________ noise is considered anti social behaviour.

21  ASBOs are considered to be part of _______________________ law rather than criminal law.

23  Citizens have to____________________________ to either the local council or the police before any action can be taken.

24  In their efforts to collect evidence the authorities may call on ________________  to get more information.

25  ASBOs are issued at a_____________________________ .

26  ___________________________ is the most straightforward form of anti-social behaviour to determine.

Section 3

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

The Climate Changers

The romantic notion that early humans lived in harmony with their environment has taken quite a battering lately. Modem humans may have started eliminating other species right from the start; our ancestors stand accused of wiping out mega fauna – from giant flightless birds in Australia to mammoths in Asia and the ground sloth of North America – as they spread across the planet.

Even so, by around 6,000 years ago there were only about 12 million people on earth – less than a quarter of the current population of Great Britain. That’s a far cry from today’s 6.6 billion, many of us guzzling fossil fuels, churning out greenhouse gases and messing with our planet’s climate like there’s no tomorrow. So it may seem far-fetched to suggest that humans have been causing global warming ever since our ancestors started burning and cutting forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago.

Yet that’s the view of retired climate scientist William Ruddiman, formerly of the University of Virginia, Charlottesville. Ancient farmers were pumping climate-warming carbon dioxide and methane into the atmosphere long before recorded history began, he says. Far from causing catastrophe, however, early farmers halted the planet’s descent into another ice age and kept Earth warm and stable for thousands of years.

Could a few primitive farmers really have changed the climate of the entire globe? If you find this hard to believe, you’re not the only one. Ruddiman’s idea has been hugely controversial ever since he proposed it in 2003.’Most new ideas, especially controversial ones, die out pretty fast. It doesn’t take science long to weed them out,’he says. Yet five years on, his idea is still not dead. On the contrary, he says the latest evidence strengthens his case. ‘It has become clear that natural explanations for the rise in greenhouse gases over the past few thousand years are the ones that are not measuring up, and we can reject them,’ he claims.

There is no doubt that the soaring levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases that we see in the atmosphere today – causing a 0.7° C rise in average global temperature during the 20th century – are the result of human activities. In the late 1990s, however, Ruddiman started to suspect that our contribution to the global greenhouse began to become significant long before the industrial age began.This was when an ice core drilled at the Vostok station in Antarctica revealed how atmospheric C02 and methane levels have changed over the past 400,000 years. Bubbles trapped in the ice provide a record of the ancient atmosphere during the past three interglacials.

What we see is a regular pattern of rises and falls with a period of about 100,000 years, coinciding with the coming and going of ice ages. There are good explanations for these cycles: periodic changes in the planet’s orbit and axis of rotation alter the amount of sunlight reaching the Earth. We are now in one of the relatively brief, warm interglacial periods that follow an ice age.

Within this larger pattern there are regular peaks in methane every 22,000 years that coincide with the times when the Earth’s orbit makes summers in the northern hemisphere warmest.This makes sense, because warm northern summers drive strong tropical monsoons in southern Asia that both encourage the growth of vegetation and cause flooding, during which vegetation rotting in oxygen-poor water will emit methane. Around the Arctic, hot summers thaw wetlands for longer, again promoting both vegetation growth and methane emission.

In recent times, however, this regular pattern has changed. The last methane peak occurred around 11,000 years ago, at about 700 parts per billion (ppb), after which levels began to fall. But instead of continuing to fall to what Ruddiman says should have been a minimum of about 450 ppb today, the atmospheric methane began to climb again 5,000 years ago.

Working with climate modellers Stephen Verves and John Kutzbach, Ruddiman has shown that if the levels of these gases had continued to fall rather than rising when they did, ice sheets would now cover swathes of northern Canada and Siberia. The world would be heading into another ice age.

So why did both methane and C02 rise over the past few thousand years? In other words, why has this interglacial period been different from previous ones? Could humans be to blame?

Agriculture emerged around the eastern Mediterranean some 11,000 years ago, then shortly afterwards in China and several thousand years later in the Americas. Farming can release greenhouse gases in various ways: clearing forests liberates lots of stored carbon as the wood rots or is burned, for instance, while flooded rice paddies release methane just as wetlands do.

To find out more about early farming, Ruddiman began to dig around in studies of agricultural history. These revealed that there was a sharp rise in rice cultivation in Asia around 5,000 years ago, with the practice spreading across China and south-east Asia. Here at least was a possible source for the unexpected methane rise.

Questions 27-29

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D

27  One of the claims Ruddiman makes is that

A population growth is responsible for global warming.

B people have affected the climate for thousands of years.

C his ideas are not in the least bit controversial.

D so far scientists have been wrong about global warming.

28  What information did the research at Vostok reveal for the first time?

A that methane levels stabilised about 11,000 years ago

B that Antarctic ice contains methane bubbles

C that the methane levels increased about 5,000 years ago

D that we are now living in a warm interglacial period

29  The climate changers' of the title are A modem humans.

B climate modellers.

C primitive farmers.

D natural causes.

Questions 30-34

Complete the summary.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

To many people the controversial idea that our 30_____________ were responsible for global warming appears 31____________ . Yet Ruddiman believes that high levels of carbon dioxide and methane – both 32_____________ , or greenhouse, gases – were being released into the Earth’s atmosphere in times prior to 33_____________ . However, Ruddiman claims that this had a positive effect, as it may well have saved us from another 34_________________________________ .

Questions 35-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

TRUE                    if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                  if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN         if the there is no information on this

35  Some mega fauna have been eliminated by humans in the past 100 years.

36  Agriculture is considered a primary cause of global warming today.

37  Ruddimans idea caused a great deal of argument among scientists.

38  New scientific evidence proves for certain that Ruddimans theory is correct.

39  The 20th century has seen the greatest ever increase in global temperatures.

40  Changes in the Earths orbit can affect global temperatures.

ANSWER KEY FOR IELTS READING PRACTICE TEST

1  local consumption

2  competition

3  banned

4  meet (the) demand

5  efficient

6  steam (engines)

7  C because it says in paragraph 4: 'the spinning jenny, which among other things had the effect of raising productivity eightfold’.

8  D because it says in paragraph 5: 'By the end of the 19th century the figure had soared to close on £50 million.’

9  A because it says in paragraph 6: 'it was competition from abroad*.

10  FALSE because in paragraph 3 it describes the foreign fabrics as 'high quality*

11  NOT GIVEN

12  TRUE because it says in paragraph 6: Economically less developed countries, on the other hand, had the advantage of being able to provide low wage competition.

13  TRUE because it says in paragraph 8: out-sourcing was a rational response to the growing competition from overseas 14-15-16 (in any order)

14  C because it says in paragraph 2: 'foul and abusive language’

15  E because it says in paragraph 5: “young people merely hanging out in public places, however boisterous their behaviour might seem to be to some people, are not considered to be indulging in anti-social behaviour.

16  F because it says in paragraph 6: “ASBOs are made on an individual basis even if that person is part of a group.

17  C because it says in paragraph 1: “you are getting into an area where there is going to be considerable disagreement*.

18  C because it says in paragraph 7: “It is a striking fact that the majority of ASBOs imposed since the law was enacted have been handed to young people and children*

19  A because it says in paragraph 8: “What all this means is that ASBOs are being used very rarely in many parts of the country. So the jury is still out as to how effective they really are.*

20  definition

21  excessive

22  civil

23  make a complaint

24  witnesses/neighbours/acquaintances

25  magistrates’ court

26  Physical violence

27 B because it says in paragraph 2: 'humans have been causing global warming ever since our ancestors started burning and cutting forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago' and in paragraph 3: 'that’s the view of retired climate scientist William Ruddiman'.

28  C because it says in paragraph 8: 'the atmospheric methane began to climb again 5,000 years ago'.

29  C because Ruddiman s view is that a few primitive farmers' (paragraph 4) caused global warming when they started burning and cutting forests to make way for fields at least 7,000 years ago (paragraph 1).

30  ancestors

31  far-fetched

32  climate-warming

33  recorded history

34  ice age

35  FALSE because it says in paragraph 1: our ancestors stand accused of wiping out mega fauna'.

36  NOT GIVEN

37  TRUE because it says in paragraph 4: 'Ruddimans idea has been hugely controversial'.

38  FALSE because it says in paragraph 4: 'the latest evidence strengthens his case' not proves it correct.

39  NOT GIVEN

40  TRUE because it says in paragraph 6: 'periodic changes in the planet s orbit and axis of rotation alter the amount of sunlight reaching the Earth'.

IELTS Listening Practice Test 119

Posted: 09 Jan 2017 11:06 PM PST

SECTION 1

Questions 1-2

Circle the appropriate letter.

Example: What type of accommodation does Bahtt want?

A. A house.
B. The Student Hostel.
C. Home stay.
D. A flat.

1. How does she want to travel to the university?

A. By car.
B. On foot.
C. By bus.
D. By tube.

2. How did she feel about living at the Student Hostel?

A. Very pleasant.
B. Rather disappointed.
C. A bit homesick.
D. Rather bad.

Questions 3-6

Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Property Available Advantage Disadvantage
two-bedroom house near the university 3 _____________
three-bedroom flat near the university 4 _____________
three-bedroom house 5 ________________ far from the university

Address: 6 ________________, Botany

Questions 7-8

Choose TWO letters, A-F.

Which TWO of the following the agent says are included?

A. kitchen cupboards
B. garden table
C double bed
D. dishwasher
E. washing machine
F. refrigerator

Questions 9-70

Choose TWO letters, A-F.

What TWO things does the student request before moving in?

A. new kitchen cooker
B. garden cleared
C. back door painted
D. carpets cleaned
E. windows repaired
F. new refrigerator

SECTION 2

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. The Bridge Hotel is located in

A. the city centre.
B. the country.
C. the suburbs.

12. The newest sports facility in the hotel is

A. a swimming pool.
B. a fitness centre.
C. a tennis court.

13. The hotel restaurant specializes in

A. healthy food.
B. local food.
C. international food.

Questions 14-15

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO business facilities are mentioned?

A. Internet access
B. mobile phone hire
C. audio-visual facilities
D. airport transport
E. translation services

Questions 16-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SHORT BREAK PACKAGES
Length of stay Cost (per person per night) Special features
2 days 16 £___________ Full cooked breakfast Entertainment in the 17

Entertainment in the 17_____________

3 days £60 As above, plus:

  • a 18_____________
5 days 19 £___________ As above, plus:

  • 2 days’ free beauty therapy
  • full-day membership of a 20_______________

SECTION 3

Questions 21-22

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

21. Last year, Fiona got a grade________________ for the Theory and Practice option.

22. Fiona has some free time because her_________________ has been cancelled.

Question 23

Choose ONE letter, A-E.

Which book does Fiona advise against?

A. Brown: Observing Theory in Practice

B. Jespersen: Theory’s Crucible

C. Piresi: On Giants' Shoulders

D. Willard: Practical Theories in the Social Sciences

E. Williams: Knowledge Theory

Questions 24-30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

How to use the recall system

  • Take a 24_________________ from librarian's desk.
  • Complete the details of the book. Write your 25___________________ address on back. Hand it in at the 26____________________.
  • Check mail in your department twice a day to see if book is ready to collect.
    It normally takes 3 days.
  • Cost: 27_______________________ per book.

Fiona’s advice on organizing a study group to work on an assignment

Find two or three people on the course who live near you.

Divide up the reading load.

Take it in turns to 28___________________ what you have read for the others.

Explain your 29____________________ to each other.

Write first draft of essay.

Exchange drafts and 30_______________.

Write final version of essay.

SECTION 4

Question 31

Choose ONE letter, A- D

Who are most likely to be the offenders of information-technology crime?

A. hackers and crackers
B. outsider users
C. employees
D. professional criminals

Questions 32-39

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

COMPUTER CRIMES
Computer Crime Offender Types  Crimes Committed Reasons or Purposes
employees
  • intercept company communication
  • steal company’s 32__________
  • use IT for personal profit
  • steal 33 to sell
  • seek revenge for real or imaginary wrongs
  • show off their 34 over others
outsider users or 35__________ electronic connection get Electronic Data Interchange System
hackers& crackers
  • gain illegal access to company computer system for 36______________
  • gain illegal access to the system for evil purposes

 

  • get information for financial gain
  • shut down hardware
  • pirate software
  • destroy 37_____________
professional criminals use stolen information as a business 38________________ for illegal purposes
  • use 39 to trace illegal gambling debts
  • dealers use pagers as a link to drug buyers
  • forge checks, passports, etc.

Question 40

Complete the sentence below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for the answer.

40. Computer Emergency Response Team can offer international information and computer security service to_____________________.

Answer keys:

Section 1

1. B

2. A

3. not big enough/too small

4. too expensive / $400 a week

5. reasonably priced / $250 a week / cheap

6. 14a Station Road

7-8. C; E (in either order)

9-10. B; D (in either order)

Section 2

11. C

12. B

13. C

14-15. A; D (in either order)

16. 75

17. evening(s)

18. (four-course) dinner

19. 52

20. golf club

Section 3

21. A+/Aplus

22. lecture

23. B

24. pink slip

25. departmental)

26. Information Desk

27. 25p / 25 pence

28. summarise / summarize

29. essay plan(s)

30. (give) feedback

Section 4

31. C

32. trade secrets

33. hardware or information

34 power

35. suppliers and clients

36. (a / the) challenge

37. data

38. tool

39. databases

40. Internet users

BONUS EXERCISE: GAP-FILLING 

The texts below are transcript for your IELTS Listening Practice Test. To make the most out of this transcript, we removed some words from the texts and replaced with spaces. You have to fill each space with the missing word by listening to the audio for this IELTS listening practice test.

SECTION 1

In this section you will hear a conversation between a house agent and Bahtt, an overseas student studying in Australia. Bahtt is enquiring about renting a place to live.

A = House Agent; B = Bahtt (female)

A: Good morning.

B: Good morning. Um.-.I’m looking for a place to rent near the university.

A: What are you after? A house, a flat…a room?

B: Well, [……………………….]a house, if that’s possible. There are three of us looking for [……………………….]altogether. We thought we might share if we could find something suitable.(Example)

A: So something near the university?

B: Yes, if that’s at all possible. We’re all students so it’d be good if we could find something within walking distance of the [……………………….].

None of us has a car and we don’t want to have to take [……………………….].

A: Yeah. Well, everybody wants that of course.

B: Yeah, I [……………………….]they do.

A: Are you in your first year?

B: No, I’ve been here a year already. Last year we all lived in a hall of [……………………….]. That was really great, even the food wasn’t too bad. We had a lot of fun there. But in the second year they kick you out into the real world!

A: OK, so let me have a look and see what we’ve got… Well, there’s a [……………………….]house in Newtown which is quite cheap.

B: That’d be good because it’s very near the university, but if we all want our own rooms it isn’t really big enough.

 A: Too small. Give that one a miss?

B: Yeah, 1 think so. Got anything else?

A: What about, this? A three-bedroom flat, close to the university… It’s [……………………….]a week.

B: Oh, that’s too [……………………….].

A: Alright, well… here’s something that might interest you. It’s a three-bedroom house with [……………………….].

B:        Not bothered about the garden, but where is it?

A         Near the airport.

B:        That’s miles from the university.

A         Yes. it is auite far. but it’s [……………………….]priced at [……………………….]a week. Why don’t you go and have a look?

B:        Oh…alright. We will. Can I have the address?

A:        Right, w’ell it's at [……………………….]. Botany.

B:        Is anyone living there at the moment?

A:        No, it's vacant.

B: Does it have any furniture?

A: Well, it says here that it’s well [……………………….].

B: What does that mean exactly?

A: Well, there's a kitchen table and chairs, two single beds, a  double bed, two [……………………….], a kitchen cooker and a washing & machine. Not bad really for the money.

B: Is there a fridge?

A: It doesn’t mention it here. I can let you have the key and you can pop round and see for yourself.

B: Right…thanks. We’ll do that.

A: Hello…you’re back. How did you find the house?

B: Well… not bad. It’s certainly large enough and there’s quite a big garden. But it’s completely [……………………….]. You can hardly get out the back door because the [……………………….]is so high. We’d have to have it. [……………………….]a bit before we moved in.

A: OK.

B: The kitchen is fine, but there’s an awful smell [……………………….]the house.

A: The place hasn't been [……………………….]for a couple of months, so that’s probably why it’s a bit [……………………….]. It’ll be fine when you open up the windows for a bit.

B: Yeah. Well, I think the [……………………….]ought to pay to clean the  &[……………………….]at least.

A: I can put that to him, though I’m not sure whether he’ll agree.

We can but ask.

B: OK. Well, if he does, we’d probably be interested…

SECTION 2

You will hear a recorded message giving information about an English hotel.

Welcome to the Bridge Hotel Information Line. The Bridge Hotel is part of the Compact group, which is a large [……………………….]of family- owned hotels offering a warm friendly [……………………….]and high quality service at [……………………….]prices. All of them cater for a wade range of people-from business to [……………………….]clients.

Set in a quiet [……………………….]area on the attractive outskirts of  Belford. About [……………………….]from the city centre, the Bridge Hotel is a – popular choice for [……………………….]. After recent refurbishment and expansion, it now has 25 [……………………….]and 20 singles. All 45 are en suite with TV and coffee-and-tea-making facilities.

The Bridge Hotel is set in three and a half [……………………….]of grounds with an open-air swimming pool and four tennis courts. Here is also a newly opened [……………………….]with fitness suit, which is considered one of the best [……………………….]in the area. Non-resident membership is available.

We have a fully licenced restaurant for residents and [……………………….], which provides a wide range of dishes with a particular focus on dishes from around the world.

For the [……………………….]business customers, we have designated business rooms with phone links allowing full [……………………….]. Our & conference facilities cater for up to [……………………….]and we are able to offer transport to guests to and from [……………………….]Airport at a small extra cost.

There now follows information about short break packages.

Welcome to the Bridge Hotel Short Breaks Information Line. We offer three packages: 2-day, 3-day and 5-day.

The 2-day break costs [……………………….]per person per night and includes full cooked breakfast and evening entertainment. Very popular for weekend get aways.

The 3-day break costs £60 per person per night and in addition to offers for the 2-day break, includes one four-course dinner. This allowrs guests to enjoy the full range of hotel [……………………….].

The 5-dav break costs £52 per person per night and, in [……………………….]to  offers from the 2- and 3-day breaks, includes free beauty [……………………….]on two days and a full-dav pass to the golf dub. This package is [……………………….]popular for couples wiio want a completely relaxing break.

If you would like more information about these special [……………………….], call Extension 3469 to speak to our Customer Service Manager, John Martin.

Thank you for calling the Bridge Hotel Information Line.

SECTION 3

You will hear three students talking about their study programmes.

E = Elaine; N = Neil; F = Fiona

N: Hi, Elaine, I was hoping I'd see you here. How're things?

E: All right. You?

N: Not bad, but I’m beginning to worry about that [……………………….].

E: What, the one on Theory and Practice?

N: Yes.

E: When’s it got to be in by?

N: Next Thursday, and I just can’t get to grip with it.

E: Yes, it’s a [……………………….]one. I’m hoping to get down to it over the weekend. I tell you what, there’s [……………………….]. Let’s see if she has any pearls of [……………………….]on the subject. She took the Theory and Practice option last year, didn’t she? And got an A+ for it, I think.

N: How does she do it?

E: Let’s ask her. Hi, Fiona. Hard at work?

F: Not exactly. The lecture’s just been cancelled, so I’ve [……………………….] got a free morning on my hands.

E: That's lucky. You’ve met Neil, haven’t you?

F: Yes.

E: We were just talking about the Theory and Practice assignment we've got to hand in next Thursday. Can we just pick your [……………………….]a moment?

F: How far have you got with it?

E: Well, still at the early [……………………….]really.

F: Are you? Well, one bit of advice I'd definitely give is not to spend hours [……………………….]through the [……………………….]– Theory's Crucible bv Jespersen: it really isn’t very helpful. I think the only reason they keep it on the reading list is that the library has got so many copies of it. Personally, I found the [……………………….]source – On Giants' Shoulders written by Piresi. Have you read it yet?

E: Piresi? I don’t think so.

F: That’s a great book. It must be on your reading list.

N: Right.

F: Another one I found very useful was the [……………………….]called something like Practical Theories by, was it Williams, or Willard? Yes, Willard. Also, if you want to look at case studies, that small book of Ron Brown’s has got some interesting stuff in – you know the one I mean?

N: Ron Brown, yes. I looked for it in the library but it was out on loan.       ,

F: Yes, it's a very popular book. Did you try the recall [……………………….]?

N: The what?

F: Don’t you use the recall system? You should, you know. You iust, have to take a pink slip from any of the [……………………….], fill the details of the book in, out vour departmental address on the back- vour departmental address, not vour home address-and hand the & slip in at the Information Desk. Then check the mail in your department [……………………….]. Say 10:00 in the morning and 3:00 in the afternoon, for a slip telling you the book is ready to collect. Last week I [……………………….]a book at lunch time and got the slip telling me it was ready just [……………………….]later. That wras [……………………….]: it usually takes 3 days.

N: T didn’t know’ you could do that. Is it expensive?

F: No. There’s a normal charge – [……………………….]a book. I think. It’s well worth it if you’re preparing for an assignment. Are you going to be working together on it?

N: Erm…I’m not sure.

E: I would, if I wrere you. You get so much more out of the assignment that way.

N: But surely the [……………………….]would notice that our [……………………….]were the same?

F: No, no. I’m certainly not [……………………….]you should actually write the thing together. I’m talking about when you first start on a big [……………………….]. I think it’s a good idea to find two or three others on the course who live near you, and divide up the reading load between you. Then you can meet up again a few days later and take it in turns to [……………………….]vour reading for each other. At the next stage you go round the group [……………………….]vour essav plan, which makes it easier for [……………………….]then to go off and write the first draft of their [……………………….]on their own. Later on you usually exchange drafts and give [……………………….]in the group, before finally writing your essays individually.

N: Did you really do all that?

F: Usually, yes. It makes the whole thing much easier and more [……………………….].’

N: Right. Well, I think I need another [……………………….]before getting started. Can I get you one?

F: Yes, why not.

SECTION 4

In this section, you will hear a talk given by Donn Parker, an expert on computer security, about the computer criminals.

Hi there.

As an expert on computer [……………………….], my job is to oversee and analyse the [……………………….]in computer users. Computers have been common place in our daily life, making our life and work [……………………….]and lively. However, with the development of computer [……………………….], computer crime has started to attract more people’s [……………………….]. NOWT in respect of this topic I will present some of my view’s and studies.

What kinds of people are [……………………….]most of the information- technology crimes?

According to my research, over [……………………….] may be employees, the rest are outside users, [……………………….]and [……………………….], and professional criminals. It is amazing that the [……………………….]account for this large proportion. Let us see them in detail.

Employees: Employees are those with the skills, the [……………………….], and the access to do bad things. [……………………….]or disgruntled employees pose a far greater problem than most people have [……………………….]. To most supervisors and some experts, they worry that dishonest employees or outsiders can more easily [……………………….] communications or steal company’s trade secrets. Workers may use information technology for personal profit or steal [……………………….]or information to sell. They may also use it to seek [……………………….]for real or imagined wrongs, such as being passed over for [……………………….]. Sometimes they mav use the technology simply to [……………………….]to themselves that they have power over people. This may have been the case with a Georgia [……………………….]employee [……………………….]of sabotaging the firm's computer system. As files [……………………….]disappeared and the system randomly [……………………….], other workers became so [……………………….]and enraged that they quit.

Outside users: Outside users are company’s suppliers and clients. They may also gain access to a company's information technology and use it to commit, crimes. With both, this becomes more a [……………………….]as electronic connections such as Electronic Data Interchange Systems become commonplace.

Hackers and crackers: What are hackers? Hackers are people who gain [……………………….]access to computer or [……………………….]systems for the challenge or even the principle of it. Crackers also gain unauthorised access to information technology but do so for [……………………….]purposes. Crackers [……………………….]to break into computers and [……………………….]obtain information for financial gain, to shut down hardware, pirate [……………………….], or destroy data. The [……………………….]for hackers as the benign explorer has [……………………….]. Most communications systems [……………………….]view any kind of unauthorised access as a [……………………….], and they pursue the offenders [……………………….]. And educators also try to point out to students that universities cannot provide an education for everybody if [……………………….]

Professional [……………………….]: Members of organised crime rings don't just steal information technology. They use it in a legal wav as a [……………………….]tool, but for illegal purposes. For instance, [……………………….]can be used to keep track of illegal gambling debts and [……………………….].

Drug dealers have used pagers as a link to [……………………….]. Microcomputers, scanners, and printers can be used to forge checks, [……………………….]papers, passports, and drivers’ [……………………….]. Telecommunications can be used to transfer funds [……………………….].

As information-technology crime has become more [……………………….], in 1988, after the last [……………………….]Internet break-in, the U.S. Department created the Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT), although it has no power to arrest or [……………………….]. CERT provides round-the-clock international information and security- related support services to users of the Internet. Whenever it gets a report of an electronic [……………………….], whether on the Internet or on a corporate E-mail system, CERT stands ready to lend [……………………….]. It counsels the party under attack, helps them [……………………….]the intruder, and evaluates the system [……………………….]to protect against future break-ins.

Practice every day to improve your IELTS listening skills. Don’t forget to visit IELTS Material website on a daily basis to find more practice tests for every skill in the IELTS Test.

IELTS Writing Practice Test 34 (Task 1 & 2) & Sample Answers

Posted: 09 Jan 2017 10:21 PM PST

IELTS Writing Topic:

WRITING TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The line graph below gives information about the rates of unemployment between 1991 and 2005 in three different countries in Europe. The table shows the percentage of men and women in the workforce in these three countries.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

ieltsmaterial.com - ielts writing practice test 34 & sample answers

Employment rates of men and women in three countries in Europe in 1991

 
Country Men Women
Germany 76.5% 54.4%
Spain 66.2% 32.3%
Italy 77.1% 37.8%


WRITING TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Write about the following topic:

Many of the world's cities are currently facing a serious housing shortage.

What are some of the reasons for this shortage and what solutions can you suggest?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

SAMPLE ANSWERS

Task 1 Model Answer

The graph shows unemployment levels in three countries from 1991 to 2005 while the table gives the proportion of men and women in these countries who worked in 1991.

In 1991, Spam had the highest unemployment rate at 13% increasing markedly to 18%( 1993-1995), then falling steadily to 9% in 2005. In contrast, unemployment was low in Germany starting at 4% but climbing gradually to 9% in 1997, dipping to 6% in 2001 and increasing to a high of 11% in 2005. Italy's unemployment rate fluctuated less than the otheis, starting and finishing at 8% over this period and reaching a maximum of 12% from 1997 to 1999.

In 1991, just over half the female population in Germany (54.4%) was working compared with more than three quarters of the men. However, in Spain, about a third of the women were working and a third of the men were not Italy's employment rate among men in that year was similar to Germany's, but not as many female workers were employed (37.8%).

Overall, in Germany, the rate of unemployment rose while there was a downward trend in the other two countries.

(190 words)

Task 2 Model Answer

Worldwide, steadily increasing demand for houses and accommodation has left many cosmopolitan cities unable to meet the housing needs of their citizens.

One of the main reasons for housing shortage in urban areas is an increase in urban populations. Many individuals have migrated from rural areas to the cities in search of a better life for themselves and their families. Similarly, foreign immigration rates to large cities continue to rise. Another cause behind the shortage in housing supply is the desire of citizens and councils to protect 'green spaces' and environmental areas within the city. As admirable as this goal may be, it actually ties up valuable land which could be used for housing. In addition, the economic recession has caused investment in construction projects to drop away, which has slowed development in this area accordingly. A final contributing factor in some cities is a lack of coordinated planning and vision for the future, which fails to consider population growth and the needs of future residents.

It is clear that solutions to this housing crisis need to be found. One suggestion is to implement town planning systems which encourage the concept of satellite cities to give residents the best of both worlds. These satellite cities have all the benefits of small town living in regard to environment and community, but are situated only a short commute from the nearest city for employment purposes. Thus, they take the pressure off city infrastructure and in particular housing stock. Pockets of high density inner-city housing could also assist in alleviating the housing shortage.

All in all, the answers to the urban housing crisis lie in effective planning for future population growth while addressing current needs.

(282 words)

IELTS Writing Recent Actual Test (Task 1, 2) in January 2017 & Model Essays

Posted: 09 Jan 2017 09:03 PM PST

IELTS Writing Task 1 Topic:

The chart below shows the average daily minimum and maximum levels of two air pollutants in four big cities in 2000.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

ieltsmaterial.com - ielts writing actual test in january 2017

Band 8.0 Sample Answers:

The provided chart represents the average minimum and maximum amount of Sulphur Dioxide and Dmitrous Oxide being disposed daily in various cities in 2000. Overall, Mexico city was the most polluted city with the highest level of both air pollutants.

As can be seen from the chart, an equal maximum volume of both S02 and N20 of approximately 200 microgram per m3 was observed m Mexico City, which doubled the minimum amount of around 80 to 100 microgram per m3. Los Angeles was primarily contaminated by N2O, with the minimum and maximum N2O levels being 39 and 104 micrograms per m3 respectively, while the maximum volume of S02 stood at only 10 microgram per m .

The second most polluted city was Beijmg where a minimum of 25 microgram per m3 and a maximum of 130 micrograms per m of S02 was recorded on a daily basis, whereas the level of N20 ranged from 14 to 54 units. Air quality m Calcuta was polluted by approximately 47 to 59 microgram per m3 of S02 and 30 to 52 micrograms per m3 of the other air pollutant.

From IPP IELTS

IELTS Writing Task 2 Topic:

Some universities offer online courses as an alternative to classes delivered on campus. Do you think this is a positive or negative development?

Band 8.0 Sample Answers:

There has been an increasing tendency of providing online courses in addition to formal ones by universities around the world. Concerning the effects of such a trend, I firmly believe that the availability of computer-based courses should be considered as a completely beneficial movement.

To begin with, it is a fallacy to consider the provisions of internet courses as a negative trend. In fact, some people insist that opting for online courses could lead to the probability of forming generations of students who would lack critical social skills such as inter-personal and teamwork capabilities. However, such a claimed scenario would not happen with the support of advanced online communication platforms. Thanks to the introduction of effective communication tools such as Skype or Facetime, students could easily interact with each other for academic discussions or team assignments, ensuring their chances to enhance essential communication skills. Therefore, it seems obvious to me that presumed negative impacts of visual classes would not be a matter.

On the other hand, I would strongly argue that the provision of online courses as alternatives is beneficial to both students and universities. Firstly, access to Internet-based courses would enable students, especially those who reside in remote regions, to get access to higher education with ultimate flexibility and convenience. Compared to traditional courses which require student attendance and fixed class schedules. Internet-based ones allow students to study at their own pace by granting them full rights to decide their schedules and academic progress. Secondly? with regard to universities, offering online courses could help them reach more students worldwide with reduced investments. Since classes could be conducted online with no geographic restrictions, colleges would be spared from the costs of expanding their schools yet still able to provide courses for more national and international students.

To conclude, the existence of computer-based courses as alternative options to formal classes should be considered as a profitable education progress in the modern world.

From IPP IELTS